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1. What is one difference between service level software and application level software? 
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level software does not. 
B. Application level software always forms the core “building bricks” of software systems while service level software is always portable across different hardware. 
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service level software provides application-independent functionality. 
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while application level software provide a consistent programming interface. 
Answer: C 
2. What is the difference between static and dynamic variables? 
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables. 
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components. 
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change value as determined by the program. 
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and destroyed by the program and scoping rules. 
Answer: D 
3. A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what? 
A. task laxity 
B. task deadline 
C. system mode 
D. length of a task’s period 
Answer: D

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1. An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of _____.
A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the   sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management   functions
Answer: B 
2. What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store?   (Choose two.)
A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
Answer: CD 
3. Which two statements about static memory allocation are true?   (Choose two.)
A. Garbage collection is not required.
B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must  inform  the run-time (e.g., operating system)  the  total amount of   memory  they will need before they begin requesting memory.
Answer: AB

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1. An association class possesses the properties of which elements?   (Choose two)
A. class
B. interface
C. constraint
D. expression
E. association
Answer: AE 
2. What is a power type?
A. classifier containing a very large number of instances
B. classifier whose instances are objects of another classifier
C. classifier whose instances are operations of another classifier
D. classifier whose instances are subclasses of another classifier
Answer: D 
3. How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
B. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
C. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: D

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1. Which of the following default factory setting is true about Fortigate unit?
A. internal: 192.168.1.99/24; http, https, ping, ssh access is enabled
B. external: 192.168.100.99/24; ping is enabled
C. internal: 192.168.1.99/24;https,ping,ssh access is enable
D. external: 192.168.100.99/24;ping & http is enable
Answer: A , B
2. Which of the following firmware upgrade method will cause configuration reset?
A. WebUI
B. CLI
C. Fortimanager
D. interrupt booting procedure by CLI
Answer: D
3. Which of the following statement about TCP MTU for Fortigate is true?
A. default MTU is 1500 bytes
B. For manual and DHCP addressing mode the MTU size can be from 576 to 1500 bytes
C. for PPPOE addressing mode the MTU size can be from 576 to 1492 bytes
D. default MTU is 1492 bytes
Answer: A , B, C
4. What is the valid method to fixup Fortigate interface speed&duplex?
A. via web GUI
B. via CLI
C. via auto update
D. via foritlog
Answer: B

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1. 1.CA.1: All of  the  following elements are  required  in  the Application Architecture Baseline Document except ____.
A. architecture models of the candidate system(s)
B. business and organization units supported
C. precedent and successor applications
D. owner(s) or business unit(s) responsible for requirements
E. hardware and software platforms used
Answer: A      
2. 1.CA.6: Which of  the following would be a potential downstream use of  the qualitative criteria for the application architecture
A. managing code quality
B. generating service level agreements
C. regression testing
D. gap analysis
E. All of the above
Answer: B      
3. 1.D.2: The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____.
A. is intended as an example and should be tailored to the organization’s needs
B. must be used “as is” for developing comprehensive architecture models
C. contains several industry specific frameworks
D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum
E. contains only solution building blocks
Answer: A

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2. When a step is the first object in a procedure, which action presents the workitem instantly to the user performing a manual case start?
A.use SW_STARTER as the addressee
B.use a Complex Router before the first step
C.use a group as an addressee for the first step
D.use a process field to capture the User ID and use it as a dynamic address
Answer: A  
3. Which type of script is associated with a sub-procedure parameter mapping?
A.Keep
B.Public
C.Private
D.Release
Answer: C
4. Which statement is true about the maximum number of EAI steps allowed in a process? 
A.There is no limit.
B.A process may contain up to 20 EAI steps.
C.A process may contain up to 40 EAI steps.
D.The maximum number of EAI steps allowed in a process is configurable in the STAFFCFG file.
Answer: A

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1.  What  is  the  benefit  of  TIBCO  BusinessWorks  Process  Engines  using  HTTP(S)  for  run-time
initialization? 
A. The TIBCO BusinessWorks Process Engine advertises state over HTTP(S). 
B. HTTP(S) may be used in conjunction with firewall security and allows direct, point-to-point access  to
the administration server. 
C.  Set  up  is  simplified  because  HTTP(S)  does  not  use  multicast  for  failover  and  does  not  require
additional network bridging software. 
D. It is more secure because HTTP(S) allows direct, point-to-point access to the administration server, but
does not automatically span network segments. 
Answer: B  
2. What are  three  restrictions of using  the TIBCO Administrator GUI via a secondary server?  (Choose three.) 
A. Applications cannot be deployed. 
B. User management cannot be performed. 
C. Any activity for which READ_WRITE access is required cannot be performed. 
D.  BusinessWorks  components  cannot  be  installed  until  the  secondary  server  is  changed  to READ_WRITE. 
E. User management cannot be performed until the secondary server has been added to the fault-tolerant set. 
F. No monitoring or management functions can be performed using the GUI until the secondary server is changed to  READ_WRITE. 
Answer: ABC  
3. What are two ways to properly uninstall a TIBCO BusinessWorks product? (Choose two.) 
A. run the TIBCO Installation Manager Utility 
B. delete the product install directory and reboot 
C. run the TIBCO product installer and select the Remove Product option 
D. execute the Tibuninstall.exe utility in the <install_dir>/_uninst directory 
E. execute the Tibuninstall.exe utility in the <uninstall_dir>/_uninst directory 
Answer:AD  
4. What is used to create a TIBCO team building environment? (Choose two.) 
A. Visual SourceSafe or Perforce 
B. Perforce or TIBCO SmartMapper 
C. file sharing/locking or TIBCO XML Canon 
D. TIBCO SmartMapper or Visual SourceSafe 
E. TIBCO Adapter cross referencing or file sharing/locking 
Answer:AC