Archive for August, 2010

VCP4 Certification What’s New in vSphere 4.1 VCP411

08.30.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in VMWare

With vSphere 4.1 release, the VMware virtual datacenter operating system continues to transform x86 IT infrastructure into the most efficient, shared, on-demand utility, with built-in availability, scalability, and security services for all applications and simple, proactive automated management. The new and enhanced features in vSphere 4.1 are listed below.

vmwareVMware releases today a significant update for its vSphere virtual infrastructure.vSphere 4.1 introduces an impressive number of new features.
Scripted Install for ESXi. Scripted installation of ESXi to local and remote disks allows rapid deployment of ESXi to many machines. You can start the scripted installation with a CD-ROM drive or over the network by using PXE booting.
vSphere Client Removal from ESX/ESXi Builds. For ESX and ESXi, the vSphere Client is available for download from the VMware Web site. It is no longer packaged with builds of ESX and ESXi. Boot from SAN. vSphere 4.1 enables ESXi boot from SAN (BFN). iSCSI, FCoE, and Fibre Channel boot are supported.
Hardware Acceleration with vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI). ESX can offload specific storage operations to compliant storage hardware. With storage hardware assistance, ESX performs these operations faster and consumes less CPU, memory, and storage fabric bandwidth.
Storage Performance Statistics. vSphere 4.1 offers enhanced visibility into storage throughput and latency of hosts and virtual machines, and aids in troubleshooting storage performance issues. NFS statistics are now available in vCenter Server performance charts, as well as esxtop. New VMDK and datastore statistics are included. All statistics are available through the vSphere SDK.
Storage I/O Control. This feature provides quality-of-service capabilities for storage I/O in the form of I/O shares and limits that are enforced across all virtual machines accessing a datastore, regardless of which host they are running on. Using Storage I/O Control, vSphere administrators can ensure that the most important virtual machines get adequate I/O resources even in times of congestion.
iSCSI Hardware Offloads. vSphere 4.1 enables 10Gb iSCSI hardware offloads (Broadcom 57711) and 1Gb iSCSI hardware offloads (Broadcom 5709).
Network I/O Control. Traffic-management controls allow flexible partitioning of physical NIC bandwidth between different traffic types, including virtual machine, vMotion, FT, and IP storage traffic (vNetwork Distributed Switch only).
IPv6 Enhancements. IPv6 in ESX supports Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) with manual keying.
Load-Based Teaming. vSphere 4.1 allows dynamic adjustment of the teaming algorithm so that the load is always balanced across a team of physical adapters on a vNetwork Distributed Switch.
E1000 vNIC Enhancements. E1000 vNIC supports jumbo frames in vSphere 4.1.
Windows Failover Clustering with VMware HA. Clustered Virtual Machines that utilize Windows Failover Clustering/Microsoft Cluster Service are now fully supported in conjunction with VMware HA.
VMware HA Scalability Improvements. VMware HA has the same limits for virtual machines per host, hosts per cluster, and virtual machines per cluster as vSphere.
VMware HA Healthcheck and Operational Status. The VMware HA dashboard in the vSphere Client provides a new detailed window called Cluster Operational Status. This window displays more information about the current VMware HA operational status, including the specific status and errors for each host in the VMware HA cluster.
VMware Fault Tolerance (FT) Enhancements. vSphere 4.1 introduces an FT-specific versioning-control mechanism that allows the Primary and Secondary VMs to run on FT-compatible hosts at different but compatible patch levels. vSphere 4.1 differentiates between events that are logged for a Primary VM and those that are logged for its Secondary VM, and reports why a host might not support FT. In addition, you can disable VMware HA when FT-enabled virtual machines are deployed in a cluster, allowing for cluster maintenance operations without turning off FT.

MAC OS X certification 9L0-624 Practice exam

08.26.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Apple

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1. Which keys are stored in a Kerberos service principal?
A. The public keys used to encrypt the TGT
B. The public keys used to initiate an SSL connection
C. The secret keys used to facilitate authentication between users and the KDC
D. The secret keys used to facilitate authentication between clients and Kerberized services
Answer: D
2. Which information is contained in a TGT from a KDC?
A. The public key for the KDC
B. The user account password
C. The service key for all Kerberized services
D. The date and time that the TGT was issued
Answer: D
3. Chris logs into a Mac OS X v10.6 computer using a non-administrator network user account hosted on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. The user account is configured to use an Open Directory password. When Chris tries to connect to an AFP server that is configured to use only Kerberos authentication, an “Enter your name and password” dialog appears. Chris enters a valid user account name and password, and  clicks Connect,  but  receives  the  response  “You  have  entered  an  invalid  username  or  password. Please try again.” What might a local system administrator need to do to resolve this issue?
A. Delete the System keychain on the Mac OS X client computer.
B. Synchronize the clocks on the KDC, the AFP server, and the Mac OS X client computer.
C. Use Directory Access on the Mac OS X client computer to enable the Kerberosv5 plug-in.
D. Run kdestroy on the Mac OS X client computer to destroy any existing tickets in the client computer’s cache.
E. Use Workgroup Manager  to create a secure shadow hash of  the user’s password on  the Mac OS X Server computer.
Answer: B

IBM 000-371 practice test

08.20.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in IBM

IBM Web Services Development for IBM WebSphere Application Server V7.0 000-371 practice test is the important of IBM certification. Only you pass the 000-371 exam you could have the chance to get IBM certification. To help examinee, NowExam publish the Questions and Answers about 000-371 exam. And the 122 simulation exam are all designed by expert from NowExam. Examinees could have an enough prepare by these simulation exercises and pass the 000-371 test successfully.
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Number of questions: 61
Time allowed in minutes: 150
Required passing score: 55%
Test languages: English
To prepare for Test 000-371, it is first recommended that you are familiar with the job role description and the parameters this certification is based on, as well as have knowledge of the topics outlined in the test objectives/skills measured on the test.  Compare your own technical level to the test objectives and the recommended training resources, and then determine for yourself how much preparation you require. Note that these educational sources are recommended, but not required (*) before taking a certification test.
Before preparing for the certification test, it is recommended that you measure your current level of skill by taking the Assessment Test (located from the Sample/Assessment Test link above). After you have completed your test preparation/training, you can assess your improved level of skill and readiness for the certification test, by re-taking the Assessment Test.
You can prepare for the test through the Tutor Approach (classroom, instructor led courses) or  the Self-Study Approach.  Sources within each approach collectively cover the skills measured on the test.
To prepare via the Tutor Approach, take the recommended course [WD506 or VD506 or ZD506] and refer to the sources with an * in front of them.  Note that per this formula, you are required to take 1 course.
To prepare via the Self-Study Approach, omit the course, and refer to all other sources with and without the * in front.
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latest 1Y0-A17 dumps test questions

08.18.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Citrix

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1. What is the role of the pool management service?
A. Clones virtual machines
B. Turns virtual machines on and off
C. Streams the virtual machine to the users
D. Assigns users to the correct virtual machine
Answer: B
2. Which component of the XenDesktop architecture uses Microsoft Active Directory,to find the controllers that constitute a farm?
A. Desktop Receiver
B. Domain Controller
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer:   C
3. An administrator needs to allow each help desk worker in an environment access to one virtual desktop Which two types of devices should the administrator configure to allow each help desk worker to connect to a virtual desktop? (Choose two)
A. Thin clients
B. Fat client devices
C. Remote computers
D. Repurposed computers
Answer: BD

922-100 Communication Server 1000 Rls.4.0 to Rls.5.0 Delta

08.16.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Nortel

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MB7-842 NAV 2009 Trade & Inventory

08.13.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Microsoft

MB7-842 questions and answers for Microsoft certification exams from NowExam are the ultimate source of success. You will find them full of learning and knowledge, guaranteeing 100% success. These MB7-842 exam questions and answers cover all the exam objectives and have been checked for their accuracy, thereby, assuring you success in your certification exam. These easy to understand questions and answers are in PDF making it simple for you to download and utilize. A lot of faith has been shown for MB7-842 NowExam question and answers by successful candidates.
About MB7-842 Exam
MB7-842 certification exam measures your ability to understand and articulate how to set up and use the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Trade & Inventory Management modules effectively.
Exam Topics Covered
The following list includes the topic areas covered on MB7-842 exam.
Sales Order Management and Sales Prices
Purchase Order Management, Purchase Prices, and Requisitions
Prepayments, Item Charges, Order Promising, Returns, and Drop Shipments
Sales and Purchase Analysis and Reporting
Item Management and Tracking
Inventory/Warehousing
Audience Profile
Individuals wishing to obtain a certification on Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Trade & Inventory should take MB7-842 exam.
Credit Toward Certification
When you pass Exam MB7-842: NAV 2009 Trade & Inventory, you complete the requirements for the following certification(s):
Microsoft Certified Business Management Solutions Specialist
Exam MB7-842: NAV 2009 Trade & Inventory: counts as credit toward the following certification(s):
Microsoft Certified Business Management Solutions Professional – Developer for Microsoft Dynamics NAV
Microsoft Certified Business Management Solutions Professional – Applications for Microsoft Dynamics NAV
Microsoft Certified Business Management Solutions Professional – Installation and Configuration for Microsoft Dynamics NAV
Note MB7-842 preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use MB7-842 preparation guide to prepare for the exam, regardless of its format.
Skills Being MeasuredMB7-842 exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.
Sales Order Management and Sales Prices (22%)Set up Sales Order ManagementCreate sales quotes, blanket orders, and orders Ship and invoice ordersSet up and use sales pricesSet up and use line/invoice discountsPurchase Order Management, Purchase Prices, and Requisitions (22%)Set up Purchase Order ManagementCreate purchase quotes, blanket orders, and ordersReceive and invoice orders Set up and use purchase pricesSet up and use line/invoice discountsSet up Requisition Templates and planning parametersCalculate a Requisition Worksheet planPrepayments, Item Charges, Order Promising, Returns, and Drop Shipments (12%)Set up and use customer and vendor prepaymentsSet up and use item charges for sales and purchasesPromise orders to customersSet up and manage customer returnsSet up and manage returns to vendorsProcess drop shipmentsSales and Purchase Analysis and Reporting (9%)Set up sales and purchase analysis reportsCreate sales and purchase analysis reports (lines and columns)Analyze sales and purchases by dimensionsItem Management and Tracking (14%)Item reservationsSerial/lot numbersItem tracingPrint serial/lot numbers on documents and reportsInventory/Warehousing (21%)Analyze item availabilityAdjust, count, and reclassify inventorySet up and use multiple locations, including SKUsSet up and use location transfersSet up for basic warehousing tasks (locations/bins)Use basic warehousing tasks (pick and ship / receive and put-away)
Preparation Tools and ResourcesTo help you prepare for MB7-842 exam, Microsoft Learning recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the following training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all of the topics listed in the “Skills Measured” tab.
Classroom Training There is no classroom training currently available.
Microsoft E-Learning There is no Microsoft E-Learning training currently available.
Microsoft Press Books There are no Microsoft Press books currently available.
Practice Tests There are no practice tests currently available.
Have Questions? For advice about training and certification, connect with peers: Visit the training and certification forumFor questions about a specific certification, chat with a Microsoft Certified Professional (MCP): Visit our MCP newsgroupsTo find out about recommended blogs, Web sites, and upcoming Live Meetings on popular topics, visit our community site: Visit the Microsoft Learning community

Microsoft certification MB5 554 practice exam questions

08.12.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Microsoft

MB5 554 practice exam questions Download, MB5 554 practice exam questions, MB5 554 practice exam questions free download, download MB5 554 practice exam.
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Learning without practical experience is worthless in IT industry, as well as cause of poor confidence for struggling candidates. NowExam presents the finest set of MB5-554 Practice test for IT professionals to consolidate their learning and assist them pass the certification exams. This crucial resource strengthens your knowledge with regards to practicality and implementation.
1.What  is  the  maximum  number  of  account  segments  allowed  in  Microsoft  Small  Business Financials?
A.1
B.2
C.5
D.10
Correct:C
2.What is the maximum account length allowed in Microsoft Small Business Financials?
A.5
B.10
C.20
D.25
Correct:D
3.Which of the following file formats are available to save a report to in Microsoft Small Business Financials? Choose the 3 that apply.
A.HTML
B.DIF
C.Comma Delimited
D.Text
Correct:A C D
4.What is the maximum number of fiscal periods you can have in a fiscal year in Microsoft Small Business Financials?
A.12
B.13
C.24
D.367
Correct:B
5.Where can integration to MapPoint be activated in Microsoft Small Business Financials?
A.Company Setup
B.User Preferences
C.Transaction Setup
D.Process Monitor
Correct:B

The latest C5 4.0 Programming MB5-626 Practice Exam Questions

08.10.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Microsoft

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1. Which of the following statements about start up parameters are incorrect?
A. You can specify the location of the menu files
B. You can specify the user that is logged into the system
C. You can specify the user that is logged in
D. You can specify the data file you want to use
Answer: B    
2.  Which  of  these  statements  is  incorrect  with  regards  to  direct  lookup  (Table[Index,Search expression].Field)?
A. A direct lookup uses the index of the table that you are looking up in
B. You can replace the comma with a double equal sign (==) in a direct lookup
C. You can look up several value using a direct lookup
D. You can replace the value in the search expression with a field or a variable
Answer: C    
3. Which of the following statements about the location at which you maintain list menus are incorrect?
A. In the cells of grid menus
B. In any other list menu
C. In the screen containing the local menu
D. In the development menu in the column MNX
Answer: D    
4. Which of the following statements about indexes are incorrect?
A. Indexes are used for the sorting of tables in reports and XAL jobs
B. Indexes are not used to control key values when creating new entries in screens and lists
C. Indexes are used for the sorting of entries in a screen
D. Indexes are used to retrieve values from a table by means of direct lookup
Answer: B

latest MB5-627 Braindumps C5 4.0 System Consultant

08.09.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Microsoft

Microsoft MB5-627 Braindumps exam is well known as MB5-627 examination. This certification program is associated with the Microsoft certification called as Microsoft Business Solutions. For preparing this MB5-627 examination, candidates can take a practice course of Braindumps MB5-627 certification. This NowExam MB5-627 exam stimulates can also help the Microsoft candidates to test their knowledge of Microsoft System.
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Question types: Multiple choice questions (MCQ’s), Multiple choice single answer, Multiple choice multiple answer, Drag and drop & Simulations (optional)
The following list includes the topic areas covered on this exam. The percentage indicates the portion of the exam that addresses a particular skill.

1. Can you write a longer free text on an invoice?
A.Yes, by using the notes field
B.Yes, the text field may contain an unlimited number of characters
C.No
D.No, the limit is 10 characters.
Answer: A   
2. Can you create a credit note based upon a purchase invoice that has already been updated?
A.Yes, via Customer/Periodic
B.Yes, via Purchase/Periodic
C.Yes, via Purchase/Table/Purchase archive
D.No
Answer: C   
3. What effect does it have, if an item is set up without specifying an item group?
A.You run the risk of posting on the error accounts
B.The Statistics section does not work
C.The item acts as a service
D.You are not allowed to create the item
Answer: D   
4. Action lists can be used to…?
A.Create your own jobs
B.Group your customers
C.Group your vendors
D.Reconcile the balances of the various modules
Answer: A

IBM 000-M15 Rational Quality Mgt Technical Sales Mastery Test v1

08.07.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in IBM

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1. One of the statements below correctly describes the potential of Rational Functional Tester to integrate with ClearCase LT. Which statement is correct?
A. ClearCase LT does not integrate with Rational Functional Tester
B. ClearCase LT  is available  for purchase, and UI  integration between Rational Functional Tester and ClearCase make it easy to use ClearCase for version control of tests
C. ClearCase  LT  is  included with Eclipse,  and UI  integration  between Rational  Functional  Tester  and ClearCase make it easy to use ClearCase for version control of tests
D. ClearCase LT  is bundled and  in  the box, and UI  integration between Rational Functional Tester and ClearCase make it easy to use ClearCase for version control of tests
Answer: D
2.  A  Functional  Test  project  stores  Functional  Tester  test  assets. Which  one  of  the  following  is  not considered to be a stored test asset?
A. Scripts
B. Object maps
C. Batch processing
D. Test logs
Answer: C
3. In data-driven testing, you separate the data from the test script. Instead of hard-coding data into the script, the script is coded to accept variable data from an external source. What supplies data values to the variables in a test script during script playback?
A. Datasource
B. Datapool
C. Datatable
D. Database
Answer: B
4. What feature does Functional Tester use to handle dynamically changing information on a Web page such as the value of a URL?
A. Replace the value with a Dynamic Detector
B. Replace the value with a dynamic JSP snippet
C. Replace the value with a regular expression
D. Replace the value with dynamic JavaScript
Answer: C

TruSecure ICSA TU0-001 Certified Security Associate

08.06.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in TruSecure

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The Open Group Certification OG0-093 TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2

08.05.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in The Open Group

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1. According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A
2. Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A
3. According to TOGAF, which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C
4. In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

NS0-201 Braindumps Questions,Best Server Virtualization Accreditation Exam

08.04.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Network Appliance

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As a Server Virtualization Accredited Professional, you will have proven skills in the foundational knowledge necessary to sell NetApp products and solutions, present the NetApp value proposition, and position NetApp against competitors in a virtual environment.
Describe the NetApp solutions for a VMware environment
Articulate the NetApp value proposition for VMware
Conduct a winning Proof of Concept (POC)
Explain the NetApp best practices for storage protocols in a virtualized environment
Explain the NetApp best practices for data layout in a virtualized environment
Explain the NetApp best practices for storage networking in a virtualized environment
Explain the NetApp disk and volume alignment best practices in virtualized environment
Differentiate NetApp Snapshot copies and describe the backup process using NetApp Snapshot copies in a virtual environment
Describe the virtual machine and file-level recovery process using NetApp Snapshot copies
Describe the backup challenges customers face in a virtual environment
Properly align NetApp replication products for virtualized environments with customer requirements
Perform replication and disaster recovery of virtual machines using SnapMirror®
Describe virtual machine replication using ReplicatorX.
Archive a virtual machine using SnapVault®
Explain how SnapDrive® and SnapManager® products function in a virtual environment
Explain thin provisioning in a virtualized environment
Explain datastore and virtual machine provisioning using FlexClone® in a virtual environment
Explain the importance of RAID-DP in a virtualized environment
Position NetApp deduplication of VMware data on primary storage
Manage growth and scalability
Explain sizing for a virtualized environment

642-544 MARS study guides with Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System

08.03.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Cisco

NowExam provide of 642-544 Cisco Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System 642-544 preparatory materials is products such as latest (642-544 Exam) Cisco pdf  Braindumps (Printable Version).NowExam successful Guide students to pass any IT certification. Provide latest certification information of IT Exam .Self-learning is a big problem,The need for expert guidance. So NowExam will introduction exam service providers to better help all engineers to obtain the corresponding Cisco certification.
The 642-544 MARS Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System exam is associated with the Cisco Certified Security Professional certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System.
Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System (642-544 MARS) is the recommended training for this exam.
2.To configure a Microsoft Windows IIS server to publish logs to the Cisco Security MARS, which log agent is installed and configured on the Microsoft Windows IIS server?
A.pnLog agent
B.Cisco Security MARS agent
C.SNARE
D.None. Cisco Security MARS is an agentless device.
Correct:C
4.A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices  through  the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined  that  this  is a Cisco Security MARS configuration  issue. Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?
A.use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol
B.use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route
C.use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways
D.use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways
Correct:B
5.Which  action  enables  the Cisco  Security MARS  appliance  to  ignore  false-positive  events  by either dropping the events completely, or by just logging them to the database?
A.creating system inspection rules using the drop operation
B.creating drop rules
C.inactivating the rules
D.inactivating the events
E.deleting the false-positive events from the Incidents page
F.deleting the false-positive events from the Event Management page
Correct:B

Cisco Rich Media Communications CRMC 642-481 Exam

08.02.2010 by admin - Comments Off
Posted in Cisco

The 642-481 Cisco Rich Media Communications 642-481 CRMC exam tests the candidate’s knowledge and skills to provide presales technical support, design, installation, configuration, and maintenance of Cisco rich media solutions based on Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express and Cisco Unified Videoconferencing.
642-481 Exam Topics
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe a Cisco video over IP network in different customer scenarios using the concepts and components of a Cisco Unified Videoconferencing solution.
Identify different video over IP scenarios and characterize the Cisco supported video supported components.
Describe video communication features and identify customer feature requirements.
Compare different characteristics of video calls and will identify transcoding requirements and list the ports used in IP video communication.
Describe the purpose, structure and definition of H.323 IP video components and examine a H.323 IP video call flow.
Define complex H.323 IP video environment operations, including zones, service prefixes, call admission control and gatekeeper redundancy.
Describe H.323 video conference call flow operation and H.323 MCU integration in a H.323 network.
Describe basic SCCP video communication, identify the components involved in a Cisco Unified CallManager video call, and describe a basic, and conference video call flow.
Describe different video over IP networking scenarios, their interworking options and issues and select appropriate Cisco video over IP solution for customer’s scenarios.
Size and select the appropriate Cisco IP Video component to fit customer requirements.
Select the appropriate protocol and hardware to cover customer’s feature requirements.
Determine the appropriate design for integrating the Cisco Unified Videoconferencing solutions in different video over IP networking environments.
Describe supported video implementation for different network scenarios from different H.323 and Cisco Unified CallManager deployment models.
Plan and design video conferencing and associated dial plans in different Cisco supported environments.
Design H.320 integration, H.320 gateway redundancy, and dial plan for H.320 integration for different Cisco supported scenarios.
Determine the supported features, identify interworking restrictions and design dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager and H.323 interworking.
Design call admission control for H.323, Cisco Unified CallManager and interworking scenarios.
Design campus and WAN QoS for IP Video Communication.
Implement and configure H.323 video and Cisco Unified CallManager video telephony in Cisco supported scenarios.
Gather information about an H.323 IP video environment, configure H.323 gatekeeper registration for video enabled H.323 terminal, and configure CAC on the H.323 gatekeeper.
Enable CCM for video deployment; configure, verify and troubleshoot bandwidth management and implement the Cisco VTA solution.
Configure H.323 gatekeeper for IP video conferencing, configure, verify and troubleshoot a dial plan for the integration and configure, verify, and troubleshoot an H.323 IP-IP for WAN scenarios.
Configure, verify and troubleshoot the IPVC 3500 MCU with EMP board and enable MCU/EMP features including; continuous presence and voice activated video conferencing.
Configure Cisco Unified CallManager and MCU for video conferencing in a SCCP and H.323 environment.
Configure a H.323 gatekeeper for H.323/H.320 gateway registration, implement a dial plan. Configure the IPVC 3500 PRI and BRI gateways and describe the purpose of IP-IP gateway in a WAN H.323/H.320 interworking environment.
Configure Cisco Unified CallManager and IPVC 3500 gateway in a SCCP environment and describe the purpose of a IP-IP gateway in that scenario.
Describe the features, functions, and benefits of a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express implementation.
Identify the 4 different voice integration options available with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express voice/web conferencing.
Describe the customer benefits of a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express implementation.
Describe the major features, functions, and benefits of Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express Web conferencing.
Describe the features, functions, and benefits of Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express scheduling, notification and attending features.
Describe the features, functions, and benefits of Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express voice conferencing.
Describe the features, functions, and benefits of Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express IP Phone integration.
Identify the major features, functions, and benefits of the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express Administration Web interface.
Describe the information required to design a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express solution for a customer.
Describe the different network topologies with the various call control platforms available for the deployment of Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express.
Determine the appropriate Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express System implementation to meet customer requirements.
Describe the relationship of the different Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express architectural components.
Describe the voice codec design requirements for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express end-user devices.
Describe the Crisis Management solution available with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express.
Describe the different security settings and options available for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express deployments.
Describe the information required to implement a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express solution for a customer.
Identify the web browser requirements for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express end-user devices.
Describe the major Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express installation and configuration steps.
Describe the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express parameters and operations of the outdial features.
Describe the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express voice and web conferencing timers and system parameters operations.
Describe the major System Administration capabilities available with the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express web interface.
Describe the implementation requirements for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express SMTP Email Integration and notification.
Describe the implementation requirements and operations of Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express Authentication options and LDAP integration.
Describe different operations and maintenance capabilities with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express.
Describe the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express end user Browser Test functions.
Describe the management reporting capabilities available for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express solution System Administrators.